Holy Spirit and speaking in tongues

Hey Andy, what are your views on the Baptism of the Holy Spirit in reference to Acts chapters 1 and 2?  Do you believe that the fullness of God's Spirit (power) is given upon receiving Christ in salvation (John's Baptism of Repentance) or do you believe that the Baptism of the Holy Spirit is a subsequent experience to receiving salvation and comes with the evidence of speaking in tongues?

My Reply:
Somebody actually asked me a similar question to the first part about receiving the Holy Spirit, but he used Acts 8.

After you've read that, read Paul's reference to the gifts of tongues in 1 Corinthians12:4-11, 28-31.

Then read how Paul tells his readers to USE these gifts of the Spirit in 1 Corinthians 14.  For example, in the sense of speaking in tongues, if you're at church, in public, or among others, and you begin to speak in tongues, then there should be somebody else there who (doesn't speak in them, but who) can interpret them before everybody else.  But if there's nobody there who can interpret them, then Paul basically says to "shut the hell up" (emphasis is in the Greek), since otherwise you're just bringing attention to yourself, and such is supposed to be on Jesus.

So what about the incident in Acts 1 and 2 when everybody came running out speaking in other languages?  That's because that was the gift that was needed at that moment to glorify Christ and His Kingdom.  For example, missionaries don't have all the gifts at once, but the gift that's needed for the place they're called to.  If they're in a place where healing is needed, then the Lord will often equip them with healing (though not always).  Some prophesy, some have visions, some understand and can interpret other languages (which they'd never known before), some suddenly speak those languages, some perform miracles, and there are many more, also.  But if everybody had the same gift, then how messed up would that be?  It'd be like a car with only 1 wheel, or that always pulled to the right.

Keep in mind also, Peter and the 11 (Acts 2:14) already had the Holy Spirit, previous to Pentecost (John 20:22). So to say that one must speak in tongues as proof of having the Holy Spirit is not supported here, especially since we know that Peter had Him (the Holy Spirit) in him, yet he was not speaking in any tongues when he addressed the crowd. We know THIS because: 
  1. Peter only addressed the Jews who lived in Jerusalem (Acts 2:14
  2. Everybody recognized Peter as the sober one (Acts 2:15).

---Pastor Andy